Ditto with the related lse question If mora are potentially sufficient to describe language, then what do syllables add, in theory Is the concept of syllables pronuncia.
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Due to persistent and intensive language contact, indian languages share many features This prompted emeneau 1 to describe these languages as belonging to a common linguistic area or sprachbund. What that means with respect to the definitions it puts forward, i don't know. The pitch may fall across both morae, or mostly on one or the other (depending on the sequence of sounds)—that is, the first mora may end with a high falling pitch, or the second may begin with a (low) falling pitch, but the first mora will be considered accented regardless
A mora is an object which allows the possibility of representational contrastiveness, so if a language has short and long vowels, that can be represented via one versus two moras on a vowel. Why not just light/medium/heavy?!) is there an example from generative phonology that explains this Sometimes all this theoretical stuff confuses me Is there a standard representation that combines onset, nucleus, coda with mora
That would help me visualize the prosodic hierarchy better, because i could put something beneath the syllable level.
